|
Post by eric on Jan 23, 2020 22:18:25 GMT
In precontraction (2000-2011) the widest margin of victory was 86 in a win for the 54 win Suns against the 29 win Wiz. Not only are these clearly not the best and worst teams ever, they're not even the best and worst teams that season, managing 4 and 11 seeds respectively. Not only is this the widest margin, it's by far and away the widest margin - every margin from 1 up is accounted for until 69, then there were two games won by exactly 70, then nothing until the Armageddon at the America West Arena. Player of the Game: C Stephon Templeton Yes as a Knick Overall the most common precontraction margin of victory was 3, the median was 10, and the average was 15.99. In postcontraction (2012-2030) the widest margin of victory was 136 in a win for the 64 win Trail Blazers against the cream puff Suns. Those _Blazers were the best team that season, winning the triple crown, but 64 wins and .240 fracs makes it hard to justify calling them the GOAT. Though they only had one true Hall of Famer, Amare Stoudemire led the way with a magnificent 44-21-5: no Portland player could match him in all three, making him by definition the best three way player on the night. Throw in his sparkling 16 of 24 from the field and 11 of 12 from the line and it's no wonder the POTG and eventual playoff MVP went to... AJ Guyton??? Overall the most common postcontraction margin of victory was 2, the median was 15, and the average was 21.98. Notice how unlike in the first graph, we have a second bump out near the 70 mark - this is the distinct distribution of cream puff teams against proper.
|
|
Deleted
Posts: 0
Likes:
Joined: January 1970
|
Post by Deleted on Jan 23, 2020 23:45:46 GMT
why is 2 more common than 1
|
|
|
Post by 👨🏼⚕️delapandemic🚑 on Jan 24, 2020 0:45:38 GMT
ask eric a simple question, get a beautiful answer.
|
|
|
Post by eric on Jan 24, 2020 0:52:02 GMT
why is 2 more common than 1 because
|
|
|
Post by eric on Jan 24, 2020 0:55:08 GMT
ha ha got 'em
actually i don't know
but if we suppose every game possibility has a ± on it, a game that could end 1 ± x could end in a tie, but games can't end in ties, so there's always at least one more period, so the spread is more likely
i don't actually know
|
|
Deleted
Posts: 0
Likes:
Joined: January 1970
|
Post by Deleted on Jan 24, 2020 1:02:12 GMT
ha ha got 'em actually i don't know but if we suppose every game possibility has a ± on it, a game that could end 1 ± x could end in a tie, but games can't end in ties, so there's always at least one more period, so the spread is more likely i don't actually know
1 is just so much more unlikely than even spreads of 5-6 there seems like we should be able to postulate a reason but im not sure
|
|
|
Post by 👨🏼⚕️delapandemic🚑 on Jan 24, 2020 1:36:13 GMT
IRL people don’t play to be down one, though I doubt the sim uses that logic. You don’t take a 2 when down 3 late, so you either lose by 3 or tie.
|
|
|
Post by skrouse on Jan 24, 2020 1:37:52 GMT
why is 2 more common than 1 I bet it's because the most common value from a shot attempt is 2 points. I bet in today's NBA the 2s and 3s are close
|
|
|
Post by eric on Jan 24, 2020 2:02:28 GMT
IRL people don’t play to be down one, though I doubt the sim uses that logic. You don’t take a 2 when down 3 late, so you either lose by 3 or tie. sim teams will 100% take a 2 when down 3 late, or not bother taking a shot at all sim teams don't give an f about nothin'
|
|
|
Post by TimPig on Jan 24, 2020 2:23:51 GMT
If you can tell us those _Blazers were NOT the GOAT...can you tell us who was?
|
|
|
Post by eric on Jan 24, 2020 2:53:44 GMT
If you can tell us those _Blazers were NOT the GOAT...can you tell us who was? did someone say tournament of champions
|
|
Deleted
Posts: 0
Likes:
Joined: January 1970
|
Post by Deleted on Jan 24, 2020 6:14:58 GMT
i wonder if the distribution differs from irl
|
|
|
Post by 👨🏼⚕️delapandemic🚑 on Jan 24, 2020 12:53:24 GMT
i wonder if the distribution differs from irl smaller sample (just this season?)
But it looks like 2 is more frequent than 1... in fact anything 2-9 is more frequent than 1.
|
|
Deleted
Posts: 0
Likes:
Joined: January 1970
|
Post by Deleted on Jan 24, 2020 17:55:57 GMT
i wonder if the distribution differs from irl smaller sample (just this season?)
But it looks like 2 is more frequent than 1... in fact anything 2-9 is more frequent than 1.
maybe we should normalize the MOV since i bet there is more PPG scored in todays NBA than sim league (when taking out creampuff teams)
|
|